Former Colleague's Termination
I cannot help but write on the recent, or perhaps not-so-recent, termination of a former colleague from the company I used to work for. I know that this is rather late but I had been preoccupied writing my entry for the Palanca Awards for Literature these past weeks. Since I have loads of paperworks dumped in my table in my posh new office, I will keep this post short and abecedarian so that those nincompoops, who alleged that they were "indirectly verbally abused" would at least have a little knowledge of the letter of the law. And do not ever say in your defense that you are no legal genius for as the Civil Code clearly states, but in English though, "Ignorantia juris non excusat."
Although I was saddened by the fact that a former colleague was terminated, I cannot help myself but laugh on a supposedly serious matter. As I browse through the notarized response of Faye, with other pertinent documents appended, which makes it a public document and therefore susceptible to public scrutiny, I found myself amazed by the manner the complainants stated their cause. I will not give any value judgment on how the case was resolved by the management as i still have my respect for them. Also, I will remove this post should Faye decide to file a case before the NLRC and the same takes cognizance of it.
First of all, there is no such thing as indirect verbal abuse as it is an oxymoron in itself. How can one indirectly abuse someone? Verbal abuse is "the intentional infliction of harm or emotional distress though the use of words." One claiming that she was indirectly abused means that she really was not inflicted with harm and emotional distress. Reviewing from their written complaints, the primary consideration for their cause was the utterance of unpleasant words, which they claim were indirect abuse to their persons. Following the strict construction of the letter of the law, there is no cause for them to file a charge as they were not injured, as they themselves had already claimed. Also, the fact they they claim to be as only indirectly affected gives them no reason to file a complaint as they have no legal standing.
Also, in cases wherein the crux of controversy is that arising from a verbal abuse, the one being compensated for is not the utterance of unpleasant words per se, but rather the injury inflicted by the utterance of such words to one's person. Hence, the facts of the case at bar clearly show that it will not even survive demurrer due to absence of cause. Complainants failed to establish that the utterance of unpleasant words had caused them too grave emotional distress that they can no longer come to work or something to that effect.
Faye's utterance of those adjectives were constitutionally guaranteed by her right to free speech. Faye's observations were not proven to cause injury, let alone, directed to anyone. Even the complainants had admitted that they only heard Faye indirectly uttering those statements. Though verbal abuse being the crux of the controversy, another issue at bar was the alleged provocation. Assuming without conceding that Faye's words were grave enough to cause a fight, her utterance was not provocative as the complainants did not take necessary action to address that purported provocation. An attack is necessary to say that there was provocation. The fact that the complainants did not do anything means they were not provoked.
I am in no position to question the wisdom of the court. Luckily, the case at bar was far from being a court decision. I know my law and I know my jurisprudence. So, I dare ask: what could possibly constitute one's termination if the very crux of controversy could not even stand demurrer?
Send me comments.
Labels: faye, termination
